I'm starting the course of ordinary differential equations and I'm not really sure if $y'(x) = y(y(x))$ is an ODE. More than the answer what I need is an explanation of the reason of it.
Thanks!
I'm starting the course of ordinary differential equations and I'm not really sure if $y'(x) = y(y(x))$ is an ODE. More than the answer what I need is an explanation of the reason of it.
Thanks!
Usually an $n$-th order ODE is defined as a function $F:\Bbb R\times\Bbb R^n\to \Bbb R$ and a pair $(x_0;y_0,y_1,...,y_{n-1})\in\Bbb R\times\Bbb R^n$. The fact that ODEs talk about functions only comes into the game when we define what we consider a solution of this ODE. A solution is an $n$ times differentiable function $y:\Bbb R\to\Bbb R$ with
$$y^{(k)}(x_0)=y_k\text{ for }k=0,...,n-1,\qquad y^{(n)}(x)=F(x;y(x),y'(x),...,y^{(n-1)}(x)).$$
But $y(y(x))$ only makes sense when we already talk about functions when stating the ODE.
Conclusion. So I do not consider $y'(x)=y(y(x))$ an ODE, but I think this is still debatable. It is some "weird" problem statement mixing elements from differential and functional equations.