I'm given that if
$A$ is a fixed $p\times p$ real matrix, and $x$ is a $p$-dimensional real vector, and if $f(x) = x^T Ax$, then
$$\frac{\partial f(x)}{\partial x} = Ax + A^T x = (A+A^T)x$$
which is $p \times 1$ dimensional real vector.
However, looking at the top answer here: Derivative of Quadratic Form
It says that the derivative is actually
$$\frac{\partial f(x)}{\partial x} = x^T A + x^T A^T = x^T(A+A^T)$$
which is $1 \times p$ real vector.
So these two results definitely conflict.
I can follow the proof in the link but aren't the $h$ terms just constants? As in, we take this limit:
$$\lim_{h\rightarrow 0}\frac{Q(x+h)-Q(x)}{h}$$
and $h$ is a real number.
If so, I'm not sure how they got from their first equality to the second.
If not, then for the first equality, then it looks like we divide by a vector which doesn't make sense (I think?)
Thanks for any clarifications on which is the right answer.