Let's assume that $12=\frac {p}{q}$, where $p,q ∈ R$ and $p$ and $q$
are coprime.
Okay, that would have to be either $p = 12;q=1$ or $p=-12; q=-1$.
Then we have, $(p^2q^2)=12^2=144.$
Yep $(\pm 12)^2(\pm 1)^2 = 144$.
That is true.
So,$p^2=144∗q^2$ and $p^2=2∗(72)∗q^2$. This implies that $p$ is even.
Yes, that is all true. $p=\pm 12$ is even and $(\pm 12)^2 = 2*(72)*(\pm)^2$.
Then, $p=(2k)$
Yes, $k = \pm 6$ and $p = \pm 12 = 2*(\pm 6)$.
So $(2k)^2=2∗(72)∗q^2$
$4k^22=2∗(72)∗q2
>
> $2k^2=72q^2$
>
> Thus,
>
> $k^2=36q^2$
>
> so,
>
> $k=6q$
Yes, $k =\pm 6$ is equal to $6q$ as $q = \pm 1$.
then $\frac pq= \frac {12q}{q}$, which contradicts $p$ and $q$ being coprime.
No, it doesn't $\frac {12q}q$ may not be in lowest terms. Even if you did not know that $q =\pm 1$ this wouldn't conclude anything.
What you want to say is $q|p = 12q$ so $p$ and $q$ are not relatively prime. But you would be wrong as $q = \pm 1$.
What you have proven is that $p = 12q$ (which you knew at the very beginning. so $q|p$ and $\gcd(p,q)= q$. So $p$ and $q$ are relatively prime if and only if $q = \pm 1$. Which is not only possible, but inevetible.
Therefore $12$ is irrational. QED
You do realize that $12$ is rational (it's an integer and all integers are rational) and that that was never in question.
I was wondering if the proof I've provided is sound.
Since it proved that $12$ was irrational, it obviously is not.
Not you need to prove that if $r^2 =(\frac pq)^2 = 12$ then $r$ is impossible to be rational. Not if $r = \frac pq =12$ that $r$ is impossible to be rational.
You attempted to prove the entirely wrong thing. Proved the trivial result that $12$ was rational, and declared it to be irrational.