Well, if $L$ and $K$ are two fields, a homomorphism $\phi:L \to K$ from $L$ to $K$ is first of all a function, but one which preserves the field operations in the sense that, if $a, b \in L$, then
$\phi(a + b) = \phi(a) + \phi(b) \tag 1$
and
$\phi(ab) = \phi(a) \phi(b). \tag 2$
In other words, if we think of a field such as $L$ as having two sub-groups, a multiplicative one and an additive one, then $\phi$ must act as a homomorphism of each of these (sub-)groups.
Because fields have so much structure, it is pretty easy to figure out how field homomorphisms behave. We want to show $\phi$ is injective. First of all, let's look at $\phi(0_L)$, where $0_L$ is the additive identity of $L$. We have, for any $a \in L$,
$\phi(a) + \phi(0_L) = \phi(a + 0_L) =\phi(a), \tag 1$
so
$\phi(0_L) = 0_K; \tag 2$
now if $r \in L$ and $r \ne 0_L$, and
$\phi(r) = 0_K, \tag 3$
then for any $s \in L$ we can write
$s = s1_L = s(r^{-1}r) = (sr^{-1})r, \tag 4$
so
$\phi(s) = \phi((sr^{-1})r) = \phi(sr^{-1}) \phi(r) = \phi(sr^{-1})0_K = 0_K, \tag 5$
which shows that
$\phi(s) = 0_K \tag 6$
for all $s \in L$; such a homomorphism doesn't do very much, so we dub it trivial.
For the remainder of this answer, we will only be concerned with non-trivial homomorphisms. From the above, we see that $r \ne 0_L$ implies
$\phi(r) \ne 0_K \tag 7$
for any non-trivial homomorphism $\phi$.
We also note that
$\phi(-r) = -\phi(r): \tag 8$
$\phi(r) + \phi(-r) = \phi(r + (-r)) = \phi(0_L) = 0_K, \tag 9$
whence
$\phi(-r) = -\phi(r) \tag{10}$
as claimed.
We now show such (non-trivial) $\phi$ are injective. If
$\phi(r_1) = \phi(r_2), \tag{11}$
then
$\phi(r_1 - r_2) = \phi(r_1 + (-r_2))$
$= \phi(r_1) + \phi(-r_2) = \phi(r_1) + (-\phi(r_2)) = \phi(r_1) - \phi(r_2) = 0_K; \tag {12}$
since $\phi$ is assumed non-trivial, we must have
$r_1 - r_2 = 0_L, \tag{13}$
whence
$r_1 = r_2, \tag{14}$
and thus $\phi$ is injective.
Note: some folks avoid the need to show $r \ne 0_L \rightarrow \phi(r) \ne 0_K$ by assuming $\phi(1_L) = 1_K$; observe that since $\phi(1_L) = \phi(1_L^2) = (\phi(1_L))^2$, we have either $\phi(1_L) = 1_K$ or $\phi(1_L) = 0_K$; in this latter case $\phi(s) = \phi(s 1_L) = \phi(s) \phi(1_L) = 0_K$, so such an assumption rules out the triviality of $\phi$ since it implies $1_K = \phi(1_L) = \phi(ss^{-1}) = \phi(s) \phi(s^{-1})$, which implies $\phi(s) \ne 0$ for $s \ne 0$. But the amount of work is about the same . . . also, in the above, I used the property $0s = 0$ without proof, but I'll leave that one to my audience to figure out. End of Note.