I already know of this question ($f$ is continuous and closed $\Longleftrightarrow \overline{f(E)} = f(\overline{E})$ for all $E \subseteq M$) which is quite the same as mine.
But I don't understand some chunks of the proof.
First, let $x \in \overline{A}$, we can build a sequence $u_n \in A^{\mathbb{N}}$ which converges to $x \in \overline{A}$.
Also, we already know by definition that $f(x) \in f(\overline{A})$.
Then, as $f$ is continuous, the sequence $(f(u_n))_{n \in \mathbb{N}}$ converges to $f(x)$, so we deduce $f(x) \in \overline{f(A)}$ (I don't fully understand why we can deduce this.)
Now, we have $f(\overline{A}) \subset \overline{f(A)}$.
Finally, as $f(\overline{A})$ is a closed set because $f$ is a closed map and $\overline{A}$ is a closed set by definition.
We can deduce that $f(A) \subset f(\overline{A})$ and as $f(\overline{A})$ is closed, $f(A)$ being included in it indicate that we also have smallest closed set containing $f(A)$ in $f(\overline{A})$, at least, I understand this. As a result, we can deduce that $\overline{f(A)} \subset f(\overline{A})$, but why?
I am a bit lost and new to closed / open sets, sorry for the formatting.