Are there integers is $i,j \geq 1$ for which there is an integer $k \geq 0$, such that:
$$\frac{(i+j-1)!}{i!(j-1)!}=2^k ?$$
There are two trivial families of solutions: For $i=1$:
$$ \frac{j!}{(j-1)!}=j $$
and whenever $j$ is a power of 2 we have a solution $(1,j)$. And, for $j=2$:
$$ \frac{(i+1)!}{i!} = i+1$$
and whenever $i+1$ is a power of 2 we have the second family of solutions (i,2). Are there any other solutions? And if not, is there a proof?
EDIT: As was pointed out, one can write the equation as a binomial coefficient:
$$\binom{n}{m}:=\binom{i+j-1}{i}=2^k,$$
with $n=i+j-1$ and $m=i$. Since the product of $m$ consecutive integers greater than $m$ is divisible by a prime $p$ greater than $m$, we have that
$$\binom{n}{m}= \frac{n(n-1)\ldots (n-m+1)}{m!} $$
is divisible by a prime $p$ and can therefore not be a power of 2 (if $m,n-m\geq 2 \Leftrightarrow j,i-1 \geq 2$). The two families of solutions given above are therefore the only solutions to this equation.