I have done the following exercise.
Show that if $x_{1}$ and $x_{2}$ are linearly independent and $z>0$ then $zx_{1}$ and $zx_{2}$ are linearly independent.
Now I am not sure how to regard this in general. One way would be;
Let $x_{1}$, $x_{2}$ be linearly independent and $z>0$. Suppose $c_{1}zx_{1}+c_{2}zx_{2}=0$ and deduce that $c_{i}=0$
The other;
Suppose $x_{1}$, $x_{2}$ be linearly independent and $z>0$. Suppose $c_{1}zx_{1}+c_{2}zx_{2}=0$ then $c_{i}=0$
or
Suppose $x_{1}$, $x_{2}$ be linearly independent and $z>0$ let $c_{1}zx_{1}+c_{2}zx_{2}=0$ then $c_{i}=0$
Which of these are the most suitable for the above problem? I have in some sense to prove and implication which contains an implication and thats what confuses me.
Update
After copying the style of another proof it seems one can do as follows;
Let $c_{1}zx_{1}+c_{2}zx_{2}=0$, then use the hypoteses w.o stating them(they are of course present in the statement of the theorem) and conclude.
It seems there is no given way how to go about this unfortunately! Anyone experienced care to share their toughts?