Here is a proof from Wikipedia's article on the divergence of the infinite sum of the reciprocals of primes:
\begin{aligned}\ln \left(\sum _{n=1}^\infty \frac {1}{n} \right)&{}=\ln \left(\prod_p \frac 1 {1-p^{-1}} \right)=-\sum_p \ln \left(1-\frac 1 p \right)\\&{}=\sum_p \left(\frac 1 p + \frac 1 {2p^2} + \frac 1 {3p^3} +\cdots \right)\\&{}=\sum_p \frac 1 p + \frac 1 2 \sum_p \frac 1 {p^2} + \frac {1}{3} \sum_p \frac 1 {p^3} + \frac {1}{4} \sum_p \frac 1 {p^4} + \cdots \\ &{}=A+\frac {1}{2} B + \frac {1}{3} C + \frac {1}{4} D+\cdots \\[5pt] &{}=A+K\end{aligned}
I follow this reasoning, however it then concludes that $K \le 1$. How is this determined. I have seen a general form of the nth order p-series, however it's derivation required real analysis or fourier transforms or something, stuff way over my head. Is there a simpler justification for this?