I know three questions (that gained momentum) that have been posted asking a question which seems the same, but answers to none of them answer the following very well.
Please jump to point 2 & 3 for immediate addressing to the problem.
Knowledge that I currently have: I was introduced to imaginary numbers a while back where just the square root of -1 seemed to be called iota. This made a whole lot of 'things' definable/analyze-able. I have currently studied the two dimensional complex plane, the rotation, Euler form, defining locus/area which is indefinitely better than an algebraic equation/expression, etc.
My Question: However, I have failed to grasp that how imaginary numbers even make sense. Let's take an example, let there be a quadratic polynomial not intersecting the x-axis. However, it does with two imaginary numbers. How does it intersect the x-axis when the equation of the quadratic dictates that it doesn't intersect the x-axis (discriminant<0)?
My current understanding:Several sites led me to the conclusion that imaginary-axis acts as the 'z' axis and gets the quadratic to intersect with the x-axis somehow. This pushes the curve form a 2-D to a 3-D curve existing in the complex space when we start feeding complex values into the function with the x-axis as the intersection the the two, Cartesian and Complex plane. This 3-D structure now intersects somewhere on the complex plane with the x-axis giving us the complex roots of the quadratic.
I however fail to understand that how this curve transitions from the Cartesian plane to the complex space while being continuous. Does it transform to a surface instead of a curve? If it transforms to a surface then it would have infinite roots with the x-axis(as seen in the video mentioned in the footnote)
I understand that the complex numbers were 'invented' rather than discovered (I'm saying this because other numbers; irrational, rational, negatives actually mean something, hence discovered).
Thank you very much for your valuable time. I really appreciate it.
FOOTNOTE : I have been to the following questions/sites :
5 This video here is very good
EDIT: The question was marked as a duplicate though it did not in a way adress the same question as the question that was marked as 'original'. I have therefore, changed the title and content to make the question as precise and understandable as possible.
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. Neither can possibly exist in the real world, but they can both be seen as facilitators, or stepping stones. If in mathematics, or theology, they produce the answers you need, there is no need to question, prove, or even disprove their actuality, because they are not real. An analogy, is with a catalyst in chemistry. – Weather Vane Jul 25 '17 at 19:37