A homogeneous metric space $(X,d)$ is one where the isometry group $Iso(X)$ acts transitively on $X$. (See this answer to a previous question of mine; note that this is a special case of the notion of homogeneous space.) One consequence of being a homogeneous metric space is that the "local isometry groups", denoted $Iso(X,x)$ (the subgroup of $Iso(X)$ which fixes $x \in X$) for each point are isomorphic, that is, for any distinct $x_1, x_2 \in X$, one has that $Iso(X,x_1) \cong Iso(X,x_2)$. (See the same answer I mentioned previously for a proof of this fact.)
Question: Given a homogeneous metric space, does there always exist a subgroup $T(X) \subseteq Iso(X)$ such that one has, for an arbitrary $x \in X$, $$Iso(X)/T(X) \cong Iso(X,x)\,? $$ $$\text{or }\quad Iso(X)/Iso(X,x) \cong T(X)? $$
This is motivated by analogy to the case of Euclidean space, where $Iso(X)$ is the Euclidean group, $T(X)$ is the translation group, $Iso(X,x)$ is the orthogonal group, and the Euclidean group is actually the semi-direct product of the orthogonal group and the translation group.
Note: I am sure that this question can be asked and answered in the full generality of an arbitrary homogeneous space, not just a homogeneous metric space. However, I am most familiar with the metric space case, and that is the category in which I am interested in applying the result, if true, hence why I am asking at this level of specificity. If you can answer in greater generality, and if you want to, then please do not hesitate to do so.
Attempt: Is the sphere $\mathbb{S}^2$ a counterexample?
Its isometry group is isomorphic to $O(3)$, so for any point $p \in \mathbb{S}^2$, the only isometries fixing $p$ correspond to the elements of $O(3)$ which are rotations through the line connecting the origin and $p$ (using the standard embedding of $\mathbb{S}^2$ into $\mathbb{R}^3$) (I think, I am not really sure). So each $Iso(\mathbb{S}^2, p)$ is isomorphic to $O(2)$ or $SO(2)$. I am not really certain what $O(3)/O(2)$ or $O(3)/SO(2)$ is isomorphic to, and whether it corresponds to a translation group on the sphere or not. (Apparently, since $SO(3)/SO(2) \cong \mathbb{S}^2$, I would expect that $O(3)/O(2) \cong \mathbb{S}^2$ as well. But I don't know.)