A real vector space$V$ is the union of three subspaces $P$$,$$Q$$,$$R$ of $V$.Prove that one of $P$$,$$Q$$,$$R$ is $V$. Please help . Give me some hints.
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Give me an easy solution – user435358 Jul 12 '17 at 18:34
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Use the definition of vector space. – Shuri2060 Jul 12 '17 at 18:43
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You cannot "prove a vector space": that makes no sense. – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Jul 12 '17 at 18:48
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1Not exactly an easy solution unless you already know measure theory - but if $V$ is finite-dimensional, then any proper subspace has Lebesgue measure 0, so the union of three proper subspaces would also have measure 0, so it couldn't be all of the vector space. – Daniel Schepler Jul 12 '17 at 18:49
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This results from a very general theorem, the Avoidance lemma for vector spaces : $\hspace{9em}$ If the cardinal of the base field is $\ge n$, $V$ can't be be the union of $n$ proper subspaces. You can see a proof in my answer to this question. – Bernard Jul 12 '17 at 20:33
2 Answers
Let $P_1,\dots,P_n$ be proper subspaces of a real vector space $V$, then $\cup P_i \neq V$
Proof:
We prove by induction on $n$. The case $n=1$ is trivial. Assume the result is true for $n-1$, that means the union of any $n-1$ of $P_1,P_2,\dots, P_n$ cannot be $V$.
To prove the result for $n$, assume on the contrary that $V=\cup_1^n P_i$. Now I claim that we ihave $V=\cup_2^n P_i$, which contradicts the induction hypothesis.
In fact, we can pick $w\not \in V_1$, then for any $v\in V_1$, $v+cw\not \in V_1$ for any $c\neq 0$, but then $v+cw\in V_i$ for some $i\neq 1$. Since there are infinitely many $c$, some $V_i$($i\neq 1$) would contain some $v+c_1w$ and $v+c_2w$ ($c_1,c_2$ distinct non zero) and hence contain $v$. This proves that $V_1 \subset \cup_2^n V_i$

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Let us generalize:
- We consider more than three subspaces
- We increase the subspaces until they are almost all of $V$
- We allow affine subspaces (i.e., translates of vecor subspaces)
While this makes the claim much stronger, it allows a simple proof:
Theorem. Let $V$ be a vector space over an infinite field $F$. For $1\le i\le n$, let $U_i\subset V$ be a 1-codimensional subspace and $v_i\in V$. Then $$ \bigcup_{i=1}^n(v_i+U_i)\ne V.$$
Proof. Recall that the intersection of two distinct 1-codimensional affine subspaces is either empty or 2-codimensional (i.e., 1-codimensional in each of the given subspaces).
Now we can prove the claim by (strong) induction on $n$, i.e., we assume that the claim is true if $n$ is replaces by any smaller integer and shall prove that it also holds for $n$:
If $n=0$, $\emptyset\ne V$ and we are done. So assume $n>0$. Pick $w\notin U_n$. Then for $a,b\in F$ with $a\ne b$, the affine subspaces $aw+U_n$ and $bw+U_n$ are disjoint because $(a-b)w\notin U_n$. Hence for at most $n$ out of infinitely many possible choices of $a$, it may happen that $aw+U_n=v_i+U_i$ for some $i$. So we can pick $a\in F$ such that this does not happen. Then $(v_i-aw+U_i)\cap U_n$ is either empty or 1-codimensional in $U_n$. Thus if we drop the empty terms (in particular, the one for $i=k$) from $$ \bigcup_{i=1}^n\bigl((v_i-aw+U_i)\cap U_n\bigr),$$ we obtain a union of less than $n$ 1-codimensional affine subspaces of $U_n$. By induction hypothesis, this union is $\ne U_n$ so that there exists $v\in U_n$ such that $v\notin v_i-aw+U_i$ for all $i$. Then $v+aw\notin v_i+U_i$ for all $i$. $\square$
Remark: The proof above would also work for a finite field $F$, as long as $n<|F|$.

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