Suppose we have a finite extension $K / \mathbb{Q}_p$ with valuation ring $\mathcal{O}$ and maximal ideal $\mathfrak{p}$.
One can define the $\mathfrak{p}$-adic logarithm on the group of principal units $U^{(1)}$ of the local field $K$ using the power series expansion $$\log(1 + x) = x - \frac{x^2}{2} + \frac{x^3}{3} - \frac{x^4}{4} + \ldots.$$
One can then extend the definition to a map $\log\colon K^\ast \rightarrow K$ satisfying the properties $\log(xy) = \log(x) + \log(y)$ and $\log(p) = 0$.
My question is, why do we want $\log(p) = 0$?
With the usual logarithm over $\mathbb{R}$, the kernel of $\log$ is $\{1\}$, and I don't see an analogy where $p$ could correspond to something in $\mathbb{R}$. So what makes this particular choice of $\log(p)$ desirable, over for example some other choice like $\log(p) = e$, where $(p) = \mathfrak{p}^e$?