I am considering the following equation $$N(n^2+m^2+nm)-(k^2+l^2+kl)=0.$$ where $N\ge2$ is an integer. I would like to find for which $N$ there exist a set of integers $n,m,k,l$ satisfying this equation (I know there is a solution for instance for $N=1$ and $N=3$).
Numerics and other considerations however suggest there is no such set of integers for $N=2$, but I would like to have a rigorous proof. I have tried playing a bit with modular arithmetic but I didn't have much success. Can anyone come up with a proof for the case $N=2$?
Hopefully the same process can then be applied to higher values of $N$...