Suppose that I have a symmetric square $n\times n$ matrix $A$ such that:
$a_{ii}\geq 0$ for all $1\leq i\leq n$, and that $a_{ii}a_{jj} - a_{ij}^2 \geq 0$ for all $1\leq i\leq n$ and $i < j \leq n$.
Clearly this is a necessary condition for positive semidefiniteness because of Sylvester's criterion, and the fact that $P^TAP$ is positive semidefinite for any positive semidefinite $A$ and permutation matrix $P$.
This question hints that this condition is not sufficient. Can you list any simple counterexamples to the claim that this condition is sufficient for $A$ to be positive semidefinite? Thanks.
P.S. I won't be offended if you flag this as a duplicate, but it's the counterexamples I'm interested in, so please consider that before you flag.