1

We found the sine series on the interval $[0,l]$: $$x(l-x) = \frac{8l^2}{\pi^3}\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^3}\sin\left(\frac{n \pi x}{l}\right)$$ Note that the sum includes odd terms only.

a.) Show that this series converges in $L^2$. Then, apply Parseval's equation to find the value of $\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{(2n +1)^6}$.

b.) Show that this series converges pointwise. Then, plug in $x = \frac{l}{2}$ to find the value of $\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{(2n+1)^3}$.

c.) Does the series converge uniformly? Why or why not?

Attempted Solution:

a.) We have $$\Bigg| \frac{1}{n^3}\sin\left(\frac{n \pi x}{l}\right)\Bigg| \leq \frac{1}{n^3} $$ Now take $M_n = \frac{1}{n^3}$ since $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^3}$ is convergent then by the Weirerstrass $M$-test the original series is uniformly convergent and thus convergent in $L^2$.

(Just don't know how to apply Parseval's equation here)

b.) Since we have shown that the series is uniformly convergent then we automatically have pointwise convergence since uniform convergence implies pointwise convergence. \ \noindent Now, letting $x = \frac{l}{2}$, we have \begin{align*} &\frac{l}{2}\left(l - \frac{l}{2} \right) = \frac{8 l^2}{\pi^3}\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^3}\sin\left(\frac{n\pi (l/2)}{l} \right)\\ &\Rightarrow \frac{l^2}{4} = \frac{8 l^2}{\pi^3}\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^3}\sin\left(\frac{n\pi}{2}\right) \end{align*} Note that $$\sin\left(\frac{n\pi}{2}\right) = \begin{cases} 0 \ \ &\text{if} \ \ n \ \ \text{even}, n = 2m, m = 0,1,2,\ldots\\ (-1)^n \ \ &\text{if} \ \ n \ \ \text{odd}, n = 2m + 1, m = 0,1,2,\ldots \end{cases}$$ Therefore we have \begin{align*} &\frac{l^2}{4} = \frac{8 l^2}{\pi^3}\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^3}(-1)^n\\ &\Rightarrow \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{n^3} = \frac{\pi^3}{32} \end{align*}

c.) Yes, the series converges uniformly by the Weirerstrass $M$-test, see the solution to part a.).

Please let me know if this is a sufficient solution for this problem, any comments are appreciated.

justanewb
  • 1,179

2 Answers2

2

It seems that the questions are structured in a way that increases in difficulty. If you prove its uniform convergence, $(c)$, like in the comments, then basically $(a)$ and $(b)$ follows immediately.

So if you want a bottom-up approach, then it could go something like this.

a) Note that $|a_n|^2\leq\dfrac{1}{n^6}$ and the harmonic series is convergent. By comparision test, $\sum |a_n|^2$ is convergent.

Now Parseval's equation is simply $$\dfrac{1}{2l}\int_0^l|f(x)|^2dx = \sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}|c_n|^2,$$ where $f$ is your function and $c_n$ are the Fourier Coefficients. This will be very easy because you are already given the coefficients $c_n$ in your equation.

b) Pointwise convergent is again immediate again, by the comparison test as $\sum \dfrac{1}{n^3}$ is convergent. In order to evaluate the given sum, you just need to prove $\sin(\dfrac{n\pi}{2}) = (-1)^{\frac{n-1}{2}}$, for odd $n$ and zero otherwise.

dezdichado
  • 13,888
  • I understand, but did I apply the M-test correcly? If so then we have uniform convergence so I am practically done besides just using the parserval's equation to find the value of the sum. – justanewb Jul 07 '17 at 21:14
  • In your attempt 1-a) it should read like this $|a_n|\leq\dfrac{1}{n^3} = M_n$. 2-a) looks good. Basically what I am saying is M-test for (a) and (b) is overkill, which is probably what the author of this problem intended to convey. – dezdichado Jul 07 '17 at 21:16
  • I understand so my second attempt is correct? Thus if I found that the series is uniform convergent which it is by the M-test then part b and c is solved? Now, all I need to do is apply Parseval's equation to finish of part a.)? Am I understanding that correctly? – justanewb Jul 07 '17 at 21:25
  • Yeah, your second attempt looks fine. I assume you can take the convergence of $\zeta(3)$, the harmonic series for granted. – dezdichado Jul 07 '17 at 21:27
  • Ok, could you elaborate or show more detail on how to apply Parsevals equation to find the value of the sum I need to find? – justanewb Jul 07 '17 at 21:29
  • Can you not identify the fourier coefficients from the series? It literally said the even indexed terms are zero. So only $c_{2n+1} = \dfrac{1}{(2n+1)^6}$ remains. The left hand side is just a definite integral that calculus I students should be able to solve with ease. – dezdichado Jul 07 '17 at 21:45
  • I apologize if I am misunderstanding but I am still confused what you mean? Could you re-edit your answer to include the Parsevals equation than I will accept your answer – justanewb Jul 07 '17 at 21:48
1

Lemma 1. $\sum_{n\geq 1}\frac{\sin(nx)}{n}$ is the Fourier series of a sawtooth wave, a $2\pi$-periodic function that equals $\frac{\pi-x}{2}$ on the interval $(0,2\pi)$. The convergence in $L^2$ simply follows from computing $\int_{0}^{2\pi}\frac{\pi-x}{2}\sin(nx)\,dx$ by integration by parts. For any $x\in\mathbb{R}\setminus\pi\mathbb{Z}$ we also have pointwise convergence by Dirichlet's test, since the partial sums of $\sin(nx)$ are bounded. For the same reason we have uniform convergence over any interval of the form $[a\pi+\varepsilon,(a+1)\pi-\varepsilon]$ for $a\in\mathbb{Z}$ and $\varepsilon>0$. The convergence over $\mathbb{R}\setminus\pi\mathbb{Z}$ is not uniform due to Gibbs phenomenon.

What happens by integrating $\sum_{n\geq 1}\frac{\sin(nx)}{n}$ twice?
It happens that $\sum_{n\geq 1}\frac{\sin(nx)}{n^3}$ turns out to be convergent, both uniformly and in $L^2$, to a $2\pi$-periodic function that is piecewise-polynomial and piecewise-cubic. Namely:

Lemma 2. $$ \forall x\in[0,2\pi],\qquad \sum_{n\geq 1}\frac{\sin(nx)}{n^3} = \text{Im }\text{Li}_3(e^{ix}) = \frac{x(x-\pi)(x-2\pi)}{12}. $$

By evaluating both sides at $x=\frac{\pi}{2}$ we get $$ \sum_{m\geq 0}\frac{(-1)^m}{(2m+1)^3} = \frac{\pi^3}{32} $$ that is also proved here with a different approach. By Parseval's theorem

$$ \zeta(6)=\sum_{n\geq 1}\frac{1}{n^6}=\frac{1}{\pi}\int_{0}^{2\pi}\left(\frac{x(x-\pi)(x-2\pi)}{12}\right)^2\,dx = \frac{\pi^6}{945} $$ hence $$ \sum_{n\geq 0}\frac{1}{(2n+1)^6} = \zeta(6)-\frac{1}{64}\zeta(6) = \frac{\pi^6}{960}.$$

Jack D'Aurizio
  • 353,855
  • Thank you for you answer, but I am trying to do this on my own and your approach seems a bit technical. Could you look at my attempt 2 and comment on whether I applied the M-test correctly? – justanewb Jul 07 '17 at 20:52
  • Could you check my work and make a comment? – justanewb Jul 08 '17 at 00:13