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Given any differentiable function $f:\mathbb{R}\to \mathbb{R}$ and an open interval $(a,b)$ contained in the range of the derivative $g:=f'$ of $f$, does $g^{-1}((a,b))$ have to contain a non-empty interior. Of course, $g$ is not necessarily continuous. But it has some nice properties: For example, we know that the set of continuity points of $g$ is of second category in $\mathbb{R}$ (by an argument based on Baire category theorem). In addition, $g$ has the intermediate value property by Darboux's theorem. i.e., mapping any interval into an interval. BTW, it is not an exercise or statement from any book. So, I wouldn't be surprised that there is a counterexample for it.

Ice sea
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A Pompeiu derivative is a function that is the derivative of an everywhere differentiable function and that vanishes in a dense set. Taking $g$ to be a non-zero Pompeiu derivative taking some non-zero value $y$, the preimage of the open interval $(y-|y|,y+|y|)$ is non-empty but contains no interval.

  • Thx. I think you are right – Ice sea Jun 30 '17 at 20:35
  • This is of course wrong. Since $y$ should be such that $g$ takes that value but such that no other value inside $(y-|y|, y+|y|)$ is taken either. – Bettybel Jun 30 '17 at 20:44
  • @Bettybel: I think you mean "every other value is also taken", which I didn't notice was a condition. It's true that particular interval might not be contained in the image of $g$, but by Darboux's theorem the image of a non-zero Pompeiu derivative contains some open interval (which can be taken not to include 0). – Colin McQuillan Jun 30 '17 at 20:57
  • I just find an interesting consequence about the function you construct. If $y:=g(x_0)\neq 0$, then $g$ has to be discontinuous at $x_0$. Otherwise, the continuity of $g$ at $x_0$ implies that $g^{-1}((y-|y|,y+|y|))$ is a neighborhood of $x_0$. – Ice sea Jul 02 '17 at 12:08