I have a question to the following proof:
Theorem: For $(X,d)$ a metric space, $a \in X$, $r\geq 0$, then the open ball $U_r(a)$ is a open set.
Proof: For $r=0$ is $U_0(a) =\emptyset$ and per defintion is the empty set open. Let $r> 0$, $x \in U_r(a)$ and $\delta:= r-d(x,a) >0$.Than we need to proof that $U_\delta \subseteq U_r(a)$ follows.
Let $y \in U_\delta(x)$ than the Triangle inequality says \begin{align*} d(y,a) \leq d(y,x) + d(x,a) < \delta + d(x,a) = r -d(x,a) + d(x,a) \end{align*} this means $d(y,a) < r$ and therefore $U_\delta \subseteq U_r(a)$. Then $U_r(a)$ is open. $\square$
My question is why can we choose $\delta$? Is it because we know that between two real numbers always is another real number. Or what is the theorem that stands behind that?