Let $A,B\subset \mathbb{R}^n$ be Lebesgue measurable sets and assume that for every $x\in \mathbb{Q}^n$, there exists a null set $N_x$ such that $A+x\subset B\cup N_x$. Show that if $A$ is not a null set, then the complement of B in $\mathbb{R}^n$ is a null set.
I have spent a fair amount of time on this question, and can't seem to get anywhere. I started by noting that if we take the union of the $N_x$, to obtain a set $N$, this set is still measure $0$. So $A+x\subset B\cup N$. Then, if $B_1=\cup_{x\in \mathbb{Q}^n}A+x$, we have $B_1\subset B\cup N$. Then I assume that $A$ has positive measure, so that $B_1$ does. And also, $B_1$ is invariant under rational translations. if $B_1^c$ has positive measure, it must also be invariant under rational translations. I have no idea where to go from here, or even if this is the correct direction.