When I was trying to evaluate a definite integral (given below the question for those who're curious), I came across a paper of Ramanujan pertaining to the evaluation of the very same integral. Amidst the paper's proofs, Ramanujan mentions the following:
It's easy to see that: $$\prod^{n=\alpha}_{n=1}\left\{\frac{\left(1+\frac{\alpha+2\beta}{n}\right)\left(1+\frac{\beta+2\alpha}{n}\right)}{\left(1+\frac{\alpha}{n}\right)^3\left(1+\frac{\beta}{n}\right)^3}\right\}=\frac{[\Gamma(1+\alpha)\Gamma(1+\beta)]^3}{\Gamma(1+\alpha+2\beta)\Gamma(1+\beta+2\alpha)}$$
Right. So how do I go about proving this?
Note: The integral I was attempting to evaluate: $$\int^{\infty}_0\frac{\tan^{-1}x^3}{e^{4\pi x}-1}dx$$