Sequence $\{x_{n}\}$ is defined by $$x_{1}=1,x_{n+1}=\frac{1}{2}\left(x_{n}+\frac{2}{x_{n}}\right)$$, as for proving whether the sequence has a limit, one of my friends told me his proof as following:
First, assuming the sequence has a limit $x$, then take limit on both sides of $$x_{n+1}=\frac{1}{2}\left(x_{n}+\frac{2}{x_{n}}\right)$$, that is $$\lim _{x\rightarrow \infty }x_{n+1} =\lim _{x\rightarrow\infty }(\frac{1}{2}\left(x_{n}+\frac{2}{x_{n}}\right))$$, which can be simplified to$$x =\frac{1}{2}\left(x+\frac{2}{x}\right)$$,which is easily solved to show that $x=\sqrt 2 $ or $ -\sqrt2$, and it is easy to show the limit should be $\sqrt 2 $,since we have already worked out the value of the limit, so also proved the existence of the limit as a side effect.
Does the proof really prove that the sequence has a limit?
Is it possible that we computed out the limit value of a sequence using similar method as above(without proving the existence of the limit before) , but later found that the sequence doesn't have a limit ?