It is well-known that $\delta_{0} \in H^{-1}(\mathbb{R})$ and that through the Fourier transform characterization of $H^{1}(\mathbb{R})$ we can obtain the following:
$$ \langle \delta_{0}, \phi \rangle_{H^{-1} \times H^1}=\int_{\mathbb{R}} u \phi +\int_{\mathbb{R}} u' \phi ' \qquad (1) $$ where $u(x)=\frac{1}{2} e^{-|x|}$. In particular, $(1)$ holds for every $\phi \in \mathcal{D}(\mathbb{R})$.
On the other hand, a characterization of $H^{-1}$ states that $F \in H^{-1}$ iff there exist $f_0, \mathbf{f} \in L^2$ such that:
$$ F= f_0 + \text{div}(\mathbf{f}) \qquad \text{in} \ \ \mathcal{D}' \qquad (2)$$
Letting $F=\delta_{0}$, in a one-dimensional scenario $(2)$ is equivalent to:
$$ \delta_{0}=f_0+f' \qquad \text{in} \ \ \mathcal{D}'(\mathbb{R}) $$ where $f_0,f \in L^2(\mathbb{R})$. With some attempts and calculations I found out that:
$$ \langle \delta_{0}, \phi \rangle_{H^{-1} \times H^1}=\int_{\mathbb{R}} -\frac{\text{sgn(x)}e^{-|x|}}{2} \phi \, dx = \langle \left( \frac{e^{-|x|}}{2} \right)', \phi \rangle \qquad (3) $$
I cannot quite get the right connection between $(1),(2)$ and $(3)$: it seems like $(2)$ holds with $f_0=0$ and $f= \frac{e^{-|x|}}{2}$, is it then possible to get $(3)$ from $(1)$ with some manipulations? I wasn't able to do that. Any suggestion or comment is appreciated.