Since my understanding of rational number says that it can expressed as fraction of 2 integers.
$Q = \frac{p}{q}$ where, $p,q$ belongs I
What I don't understand is how does PI fail to qualify these conditions?
Since, $\pi$ is an angle and
$\theta = \frac{circumference}{radius}$
So does $\pi$ could be expressed in same terms and we can always make a circle with integral circumference and radius and find the value of $\pi$.
Thus, $\pi$ should be a rational number. What am I missing?
That's a rather big assumption on your part.
– Deepak May 24 '17 at 07:28