2

In Stein's Complex Variables I'm having trouble verifying the conjecture in $(2.)$

$(1.)$

If $f$ is a complex-valued, on $\partial D$ and if it's absolute value $|f(z)|$ is bounded by a constant $M$ for all z on $\partial D$.

$$\left|\int_{\partial D} f(z)dz \right| \leq \max:=|f(z)|\int_{a}^{b} \gamma'(t)$$

$$\left|\int_{\partial D} f(z)\right | \leq \max_{z \, \in \, \partial D}\left|f(z) \right |\int_{a}^{b} \gamma'(t)$$

$$$$

$(2.)$

$$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{e^{ix}-1}{x}dx = \frac{1}{2i}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{e^{ix}-1}{x}dx = \frac{\pi}{2}$$

My initial task began within the given hint in $(1.)$, I focused on the integral on the RHS side, since it would be easier to define and transform the integral on our Semicircular Contour denoted by $\partial D$.

Lemma$(1.)$:

From $(2.)$ I observed that the integral now in $\mathbb{C}$ becomes the following:

$$\oint_{\partial D}\frac{e^{iz}-1}{z}dz$$

Remark: $\partial{D}$ denotes the boundary of our contour which can be depicted in the following image : Contour

Lemma$(2)$

From Lemma(), our integral can be parametrized via the definition in $(1.3)$ as follows:

$$\frac{1}{2i}\oint_{\partial D}\frac{e^{rei\theta}-1}{re^{\theta}}iRe^{i\theta}d\theta, \, (0 \leq \theta \leq \pi)$$

$$\left|\frac{1}{2i}\oint_{\partial D} \frac{e^{ir^{ei\theta}}-1}{re^{i\theta}}\right | \leq \max_{z \, \in \, \partial D}\left|\frac{e^{ire^{i\theta}-1}}{re^{i\theta}} \right |\int_{a}^{b} \gamma'\left(\frac{e^{ire^{i\theta}-1}}{re^{i\theta}}\right)$$

One can construct the upper and lower bounds via the reverse triangle inequality as follows: $$|R(e^{ie\theta})-1|| \geq ||r(e^{ie\theta})-1|| ||R(e^{ie\theta})-1||$$ $$|R(e^{iei\theta})-1| \geq ||r(e^{(rei\theta)}-1|| R(e^{iei\theta})-1||$$

From this point in the problem i'm having troubles, on what's the next move to make would one take the $$\lim_{r \rightarrow \infty}\max_{\partial D}$$ and then calculate residues and apply the residue theorem ?

Guy Fsone
  • 23,903
Zophikel
  • 1,061
  • 1
    Let it be noted that this integral is trivial with Differentiation under the Integral. You could also note that this is equivalent to solving the integral along the real line of $\frac{\sin x}{x}$. You could also attack this using the residue theorem. You could also split the integral and use the fact that $\frac{1}{x}$ is odd and so the Principal Value of the integral along the real line is zero. The possibilities are endless :D – Brevan Ellefsen May 23 '17 at 23:00
  • @BrevanEllefsen Sounds like normal math to me :P – Simply Beautiful Art May 23 '17 at 23:06
  • 1
    @BrevanEllefsen I feel the majority of math problems can be solved in endlessly different ways. – Simply Beautiful Art May 23 '17 at 23:09
  • @BrevanEllefsen so my initial approach is correct, I saw that I dropped one of the integral coefficients on accident maybe that's what's caused confusion when I attempted to evaluate the integral – Zophikel May 24 '17 at 11:58
  • Last integral should be doable using simple anti-derivatives. – Simply Beautiful Art May 24 '17 at 12:33
  • I'll have to correct some initial results with my Lemma's but it seems like i'm on the right track – Zophikel May 25 '17 at 01:56

0 Answers0