I realize two answer is bad form but:
Let's go over Cantor's diagonal argument in detail and your argument in detail.
First we must define what we think a real number and an even number is.
Cantor: A real number between $0$ and $1$ is a value $\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} a_i*10^{-i}; a_i\in \mathbb N_{10}=\{0...9\}$. There is a bijection from $j:[0,1] \leftarrow\rightarrow X =$ {the set of infinite sequences of $\mathbb N_{10}$} via $j(\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} a_i*10^{-i}) = \{a_i\}$.
We are going to do our Cantor diagonal argument on $X = \{\text{infinite sequences of } \mathbb N_{10}\}$ rather than on $[0,1]$ but that will be fine as $[0,1] \approx X$.
Your: An even integer is a value $\sum_{k=0}^na_k*10^k; a_i \in \mathbb N_{10}; a_0 \in \{0,2,4,6,8\}$. There is a bijection $h: \{\text{even integers}\} \leftarrow \rightarrow Y = \{\text{finite sequences of }\mathbb N_{10}\text{ with first term even}\}$ via $h(\sum_{k=0}^na_k*10^k) = \{a_i\}$.
We will do our Cantor argument on $Y$ rather than the set of even integers but this is fine because $Y$ and the set of even integers or equivalent.
But NOTE: $X$ is a set of infinite sequences and $Y$ is a set of finite sequences. That is going to make all the difference.
Cantor: Let $E$ be a countable infinite subset of $X$. That is $E = \{v_i| v_i = \{a_{i,1}, a_{i,2},......\}\}$.
Your: Let $F$ be a countable infinite subset of $Y$. That is $F = \{w_i|w_i = \{a_{i,0}, a_{i,1} ....... a_{i, m}\}\}$
Cantor: We are going to find an $f: \{\text{countable infinite subsets of } X\} \rightarrow X$. so that $f(E) \in X$ but $f(E) \not \in E \subset X$.
Thus no countable subset of $X$ is all of $X$ and thus $X$ is uncountable.
Your: We are going to attempt (but ultimately fail) to find a $g: \{\text{countable infinite subsets of }Y\}\rightarrow Y$. What we are going to define instead is a $g:\{\text{countable infinite subsets of }Y\}\rightarrow X$. We will fail to show that $f(F) \in Y$. We will find instead that $f(F) \not \in Y$. (Although $f(F) \in X$).
As $f:\{\text{countable infinite subsets of}Y\}\not\rightarrow Y$ the fact that $f(F) \not \in F$ does not demonstrate anything.
Cantor: Let $f(E) = \{b_i\}$ so that $b_i = a_{i,i} + 1 \mod 10$ we $\{a_{i,k} = v_i \in E$. Thus $\{b_i\}$ is an infinite sequence and thus in $X$. So $f: \{\text{countable infinite subsets of } X\}\rightarrow X$. And $b_i \ne a_{i,i}$ for any $i$, $\{b_i\} \ne v_i$ for any $v_i \in E$ so $f(E) \not \in E$.
We are done.
Your: Let $g(F) = \{b_i\}$ were $b_{(\sum_{i=0}^k i)+j} = a_{k+1, j}$; that is ... we simply write every sequence one after another.
However as $F$ is an infinite set this $g(F)$ is an infinite sequence. $Y$ is a set of finite sequences. So $g: \{\text{countable infinite subsets of }Y\}\not \rightarrow Y$. Instead $g: \{\text{countable infinite subsets of }Y\}\rightarrow X$. So $g(F) \not \in Y$. As $g(F) \not \in Y$, the fact that $g(F) \not \in F \subset Y$ is not useful.