Let $F: \mathbb{R}^m \to \mathbb{R}^m$ be a strictly monotone, surjective, continuous function. Here, the strict monotonicity means that $(x - y)^T (F(x) - F(y)) > 0$ for all $x,y \in \mathbb{R}^m$ as shown at
Is every monotone map the gradient of a convex function?
Then, by strict monotonicity of $F$, it is also injective, and hence bijective. So, there is its inverse function $F^{-1}: \mathbb{R}^m \to \mathbb{R}^m$.
My question is "Is the inverse $F^{-1}$ also continuous?"
When $m = 1$, it seems true as shown at
Many thanks in advance for your answer and discussion.