Let $f: \Bbb R^n \to R$ be a scalar field defined by
$$ f(x) = \sum_{i=1}^n \sum_{j=1}^n a_{ij} x_i x_j .$$
I want to calculate $\frac{\partial f}{\partial x_1}$. I found a brute force way of calculating $\frac{\partial f}{\partial x_1}$. It goes as follows:
First, we eliminate all terms that do not contain $x_1$. This leaves
\begin{align*} \frac{\partial f}{\partial x_1} &= \frac{\partial}{\partial x_1} \Big( a_{11} x_1 x_1 + \sum_{j=2}^n a_{1j} x_1 x_j + \sum_{i=2}^n a_{i1} x_i x_1 \Big)\\ &= 2a_{11}x_1 + \sum_{j=2}^n a_{1j} a_j + \sum_{i=2}^n a_{i1}a_i \\ &= \sum_{j=1}^n a_{1j} a_j + \sum_{i=1}^n a_{i1} a_i. \end{align*}
This is a pretty nice result on its own. But then I realized that this problem is related to inner products. Specifically, if we rewrite the terms $f(x)$ and $\frac{\partial f}{\partial x_1}$ as inner products we get
$$ f(x) = \langle x, Ax \rangle $$
and
$$ \frac{\partial f}{\partial x_1} = \langle (A^T)^{(1)}, x\rangle + \langle A^{(1)}, x \rangle = \langle (A^T + A)^{(1)}, x \rangle $$
where $A^{(1)}$ denotes the first column of the matrix $A$.
This suggests that there is a way to circumvent the explicit calculations with sums and instead use properties of the inner product to calculate $\frac{\partial}{\partial x_1}\langle x, Ax \rangle$. However, I wasn't able to find such a proof. If it's possible, how could I go about calculating the partial derivative of $f$ with respect to $x_1$ only using the properties of the inner product?