I have two sequences defined in terms of an integral: $$a_n=\int_{-n\pi}^{n\pi}\sin x\,dx$$ $$b_n=\int_{-2n\pi}^{(2n+1)\pi}\sin x\,dx$$ And I am tasked with finding the limit as $n$ approaches infinity. I am not really sure how to achieve this. I have looked at another question on this site that is relatively similar and they used substitution however I have no idea what I should let $u$ equal to make this work out nicely and I did not see this explained.

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2The integrals are easy to find – CY Aries May 15 '17 at 08:52
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See https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/80754/show-that-the-value-of-a-definite-integral-is-unity/80776#80776 – lab bhattacharjee May 15 '17 at 08:55
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Wait, so can I just find the definite integral in terms of the FTC and then find the limit of that? That seemed way to easy – John O'Neil May 15 '17 at 08:56
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Yeah. That is easy. Now as a bonus, can you tell the value of $\int_{-\infty}^\infty \sin(x)dx?$ – Li Chun Min May 15 '17 at 09:00
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I'd say it doesn't exist because the limit as a approaches infinity $\int_{0}^{a} sin(x) dx$ doesn't exist? Even though they would seem to cancel out – John O'Neil May 15 '17 at 09:02
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1@LiChunMin Cauchy PV says 0? – Parcly Taxel May 15 '17 at 09:04
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I thought that those were two different things. That the limit diverges even though the Cauchy PV is 0? – John O'Neil May 15 '17 at 09:06
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It depends on how you define the integral as @Parcly Taxel has pointed out. You may look at what Cauchy PV mean. – Li Chun Min May 15 '17 at 09:08
2 Answers
First evaluate the integrals: $$a_n=\int_{-n\pi}^{n\pi}\sin x\,dx=[-\cos x]_{-n\pi}^{n\pi}=0$$ $$b_n=\int_{-2n\pi}^{(2n+1)\pi}\sin x\,dx=[-\cos x]_{-2n\pi}^{(2n+1)\pi}=2$$ Both $a_n$ and $b_n$ are constant sequences, so their limits as $n\to\infty$ are 0 and 2 respectively.

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You can actually compute the integral and express $a_n$ and $b_n$ without using the integral. Note that \begin{align*} a_n=\int_{-n\pi}^{n\pi}\sin(x)\ dx&=\left.-\cos(x)\right|_{-n\pi}^{n\pi}\\&=-\cos(n\pi)+\cos(-n\pi)\\&=-\cos(n\pi)+\cos(n\pi)\\ &=0, \end{align*} so $\lim\limits_{n\rightarrow\infty} a_n = 0$.
Again, using the fact that $\cos$ is a periodic function with period $2\pi$, note that \begin{align*} b_n=\int_{-2n\pi}^{\pi+2n\pi}\sin(x)\ dx&=\left.-\cos(x)\right|_{-2n\pi}^{\pi+2n\pi}\\&=-\cos(\pi+2n\pi)+\cos(-2n\pi)\\&=-\cos(\pi)+\cos (0)\\ &=2 \end{align*} so $\lim\limits_{n\rightarrow\infty} b_n = 2$.

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1I have corrected your answer which previously was incorrect. Probably you went offline after posting this answer. – Jaideep Khare May 15 '17 at 09:12
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Thank you, @JaideepKhare. I stupidly think of $\cos(0)$ as 0 haha. – Kevin Limanta May 15 '17 at 09:29
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