Suppose we have a countably infinite family of non-empty, bounded open sets, $A_{0},A_{1},\dots$ in $\mathbb{R}^n$ such that $A_{i}\supseteq A_{i+1}$ for all $i$. If the intersection $$A=\bigcap_{i=0}^{\infty}A_{i}$$ is non-empty and closed, is it true that we have $$\bar A=\bigcap_{i=0}^{\infty}\bar{A_{i}}$$ where $\bar X$ denotes the closure of $X$? I think it is true intuitively, but I can not seem to prove it.
Edit: $A$ should be non-empty