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How would one show that the newton raphson method converges linearly in these 2 cases?

$i) f'(\alpha)=0, f''(\alpha)\ne0$
$ii)f'(\alpha)=0, f''(\alpha)=0, f'''(\alpha)\ne0$ where $\alpha$ is the root of the function. The hint I have been given is to use L'Hopitals rule, but cant quite figure it out.

jonty1245
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1 Answers1

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Write $f(x)=(x-α)^m·g(x)$ with $g(α)\ne 0$ and use $x\approx α$ to find $$ x-\frac{f(x)}{f'(x)}\approx α+\frac{m-1}m(x-α) $$

Lutz Lehmann
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