I have an expression like: $$\frac{d(n(x)!)^{-1}}{dx}$$ where $n(x)$ is given by $n(x)=floor(x \exp(-c))$ now can I do this like $-1(n(x))^{-2}(n(x)-1)(n(x)-1)! \frac{dn(x)}{dx}$ where i am using the method of finite differences and also some reference from this question. Is this the correct way?
Just one edit: Will it make a significant difference if we have partial derivative with respect to x rather then differentiation?