I am trying to prove the following:
If p and q are distinct primes, then $\sqrt{pq}$ $\notin$ $\Bbb{Q}$.
Here is my proof thus far:
Suppose towards a contradiction that if p and q are distinct primes, that $\sqrt{pq}$ $\in$ $\Bbb{Q}$. If so, there exists some m , n $\in$ $\Bbb{Z}$ such that $\sqrt{pq}$ = $\frac mn$.
Squaring both sides, we see that pq = $\left(\frac{m^2}{n^2}\right)$ .
Multiplying by $\left(\frac nm\right)$, we see that $\left(\frac{m}{n}\right)$ = $\left(\frac{npq}{m}\right)$.
This implies that n|m and m|npq. But, since m, n share no common factors, n $\not\mid$ m.
Hence we have reached a contradiction.
**My concern is step 4 of my proof. Does it follow that since n $\not\mid$ m , $\sqrt{pq}$ $\notin$ $\Bbb{Q}$ ?
Is this "enough" to render a contradiction? It feels fishy to me but I'm not sure. If anybody could help that would be greatly appreciated! I am trying to develop my intuition in regards to this.