Suppose $f(z) = \frac{1}{(q(z))^2}$ where $q(z_0) = 0$ and $q'(z_0) \neq 0$
Show that Res$(f(z);z_0) = -\frac{q''(z_0)}{(q'(z_0))^3}$
I been messing around with $f$ for quite a while and honestly I have no idea how to even start.
Any help or insights (or point me in the right direction) is deeply appreciated.