This is an example from my textbook. I'm very rusty with simplifying algebraic expression so i hope you'll forgive me for that.
The textbook says there are two rules to Mathematical Induction:
1) We must first prove that $P(1)$ is true.
2) We must then assume that $P(k)$ is true and prove that $P(k+1)$ is true.
Show that if n is a positive integer, then $1 + 2+· · ·+n =\frac{ n(n + 1)} 2$
For the inductive hypothesis we assume that P(k) holds for an arbitrary positive integer k. That is, we assume that
$1 + 2+· · ·+k = \frac{k(k + 1)} 2$ .
Under this assumption, it must be shown that P(k + 1) is true, namely, that $1 + 2+· · ·+k + (k + 1) =\frac {(k + 1)((k + 1) + 1)} 2= \frac{(k + 1)(k + 2)} 2$
is also true. When we add $k + 1$ to both sides of the equation in P(k), we obtain
$1 + 2+· · ·+k + (k + 1) =\frac{k(k + 1)} 2 + (k + 1) = \frac{k(k + 1) + 2(k + 1)} 2$
$= \frac{(k + 1)(k + 2)} 2$ .
This last equation shows that P(k + 1) is true under the assumption that P(k) is true. This completes the inductive step.
My question is how this proves that $P(k+1)$ is true? Also, why does textbook add $k+1$ to both sides of the equation?