Should this be proof by contradiction? Any hint and help is appreciated.
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1Possible duplicate of Show that we cannot have a prime triplet of the form $p$, $p + 2$, $p + 4$ for $p >3$ – Martin Sleziak Apr 26 '17 at 03:43
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Hint: exactly one of $n,n+2,n+4$ is divisible by $3$.
carmichael561
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So let says if n, n+2 and n+4 are all divisible by 3, then there are infinitely many triples? – Kay Apr 26 '17 at 02:47
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No, the point is that if a triple ${n,n+2,n+4}$ consists of three primes, then since one of the three is divisible by $3$ it must actually be equal to $3$. This limits the number of possible triples. – carmichael561 Apr 26 '17 at 02:51
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