This is from Baby Rudin chapter 1, exercise 6, and I'm using the unofficial answer key found here: https://minds.wisconsin.edu/handle/1793/67009
There is also this proof here: Prove that $(b^m)^{1/n} = (b^p)^{1/q}$ if $r = m/n = p/q$
which I find unconvincing for reasons I'll explain.
The proof provided by the Wisconsin professor proceeds thus:
Let $k = mq = np$. Because there is only one positive real number c such that $c^{nq} = b^k$, to show that $(b^m)^{1/n}$ and $(b^p)^{1/q}$ have this property, it follows that they are equal. Thus:
$((b^m)^{1/n})^{nq} = (b^m)^q = b^{mq} = b^k$, and similarly for $(b^p)^{1/q}$
My issue is in the computation, specifically the first and second steps; it seems like if I can distribute the exponents like this (which is not a proved property) the proof becomes trivial anyway, because then $(b^m)^{1/n} = b^{m/n} = b^{p/q} = (b^{p})^{1/q}$
In the thread to which I linked above, this issue is brought up, and the OP proposes a proof by induction which includes the following steps
$(x^s)^{k+1} =(x^s)^k(x^s) =(x^{sk})x^s =x^{sk+s} =x^{s(k+1)}$
But again this seems like it's already using the fact that we can multiply exponents. Am I missing something about this proof, or is there a different way to go about this?