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Let $k$ be a positive integer. Prove that for any integer $n>=k+1$, if $k|n$, then $gcd(n,n-k) = k$.

My attempt:

$q_{1}n + q_{2}(n-k) = k$

Also, $k|n = k*u = n$

$q_{1}*k*u + q_{2}(k*u-k) = k$

I don't know what do do after this step

2 Answers2

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You tell nothing about $q_1$ and $q_2$, so this path leads to nothing.

What you have to show is that $k$ is the maximum common divisor.

The hypothesis tells you $n=mk$, so also $n-k=(m-1)k$. Therefore $k$ is a common divisor of $n$ and $n-k$.

If $h$ is a common divisor of $n$ and $n-k$, then $$ n=ah,\qquad n-k=bh $$ and therefore $$ k=n-(n-k)=ah-bh=(a-b)h $$ Hence $h\le k$ (actually $h$ is a divisor of $k$).

egreg
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Notice that since $k|n$, we have $\gcd(n,k)=\gcd(n,-k)=k$. This is because $k|k$ and $k|n$, and there are no greater divisors of $k$.

Further, it is not to hard to see that $\gcd(a,b)=\gcd(a,a+b)$. (See for instance, Prove: $\gcd(a,b) = \gcd(a, b + at)$.)

Thus, we have $k=\gcd(n,-k)=\gcd(n,n-k)$, where we used the above fact.