$$\int_{0}^{2\pi} {{x\sin^{100}x}\over \sin^{100}x+\cos^{100}x}\,dx $$
Does anyone have any idea? I'm stuck on it.
Thanks!

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3 Answers
HINT:
First use $I=\int_a^bf(x)\ dx=\int_a^bf(a+b-x)\ dx$
so that $I+I=\int_a^b[f(x)+f(a+b-x)]\ dx\ \ \ \ (1)$
Then partition the ranges as $[0,\pi/2];[\pi/2,\pi];[\pi,3\pi/2];[3\pi/2,2\pi]$
In each four ranges apply $(1)$ again.
Generalization: For, $$J=\int_{m\cdot\pi/2}^{(m+1)\pi/2}\dfrac{\sin^nx}{\cos^nx+\sin^nx}dx$$
$\sin\left(\dfrac{m\pi}2+\dfrac{(m+1)\pi}2-x\right)=\sin\left(m\pi+\dfrac\pi2-x\right)=(-1)^m\cos x$
Similarly, $\cos\left(\dfrac{m\pi}2+\dfrac{(m+1)\pi}2-x\right)=(-1)^m\sin x,$
If $g(x)=\dfrac{\sin^nx}{\cos^nx+\sin^nx},$
$g\left(\dfrac{m\pi}2+\dfrac{(m+1)\pi}2-x\right)=\cdots=\dfrac{\cos^nx}{\sin^nx+\cos^nx}$
$$\implies J+J=\int_{m\cdot\pi/2}^{(m+1)\pi/2}\dfrac{\sin^nx+\cos^nx}{\cos^nx+\sin^nx}dx=\cdots=\dfrac{(m+1)\pi}2-\dfrac{m\pi}2=?$$

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See also: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/439851/evaluate-the-integral-int-frac-pi2-0-frac-sin3x-sin3x-cos3xdx/439856#439856 – lab bhattacharjee Apr 01 '17 at 11:09
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I did what u say, and after i apply (1) in each four, I don't know how to continue...One more hint please? – Andrew Apr 01 '17 at 11:46
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@Andrew, What is your $$I+I=?$$ Please find the updated answer – lab bhattacharjee Apr 01 '17 at 13:13
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Thank you very much, I solve the integral and I understood how to do it! Thank you again! – Andrew Apr 01 '17 at 14:40
Hint. By the change of variable $$ x \to 2\pi-x, $$ one gets $$ \int_{0}^{2\pi} {{x\sin^{100}x}\over \sin^{100}x+\cos^{100}x}\:dx =\int_{0}^{2\pi} {{(2\pi-x)\sin^{100}x}\over \sin^{100}x+\cos^{100}x}\:dx $$ then one may obtain a standard integral.

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+1: But how do you continue? You still have the sum in the denominator? – MrYouMath Apr 01 '17 at 11:32
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I also try that before to post it, but from there i didn't know what to do. – Andrew Apr 01 '17 at 11:46
After the reduction (by symmetry, $x\mapsto 2\pi-x$) to $$\pi\int_{0}^{2\pi}\frac{\sin^{100}(x)}{\sin^{100}(x)+\cos^{100}(x)}\,dx=2\pi\int_{0}^{\pi}\frac{\sin^{100}(x)}{\sin^{100}(x)+\cos^{100}(x)}\,dx$$ we may still apply a symmetry argument ($x\mapsto \frac{\pi}{2}-x$) to turn the last integral into $$ 2\pi \int_{0}^{\pi/2}\frac{\sin^{100}(x)+\cos^{100}(x)}{\sin^{100}(x)+\cos^{100}(x)}\,dx = \color{red}{\large\pi^2}.$$ You may replace $100$ with any positive even integer and the answer stays the same.

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