I know that given a differential equation, one that is separable, it is not fully correct to handle the $\frac{dy}{dx}$ as a ratio. Meaning that it is not simply a small difference in $y$ over a small difference in $x$, as the difference is infinitesimal. It is simply a notation created by Leibnitz that is equivalent to $f'(x)$.
My question is if this is the case then why is this method for ODE still used and taught? Is the answer always correct when dealing with ODE using this method or is does it lead to wrong results in some cases?