Can the "proves consistent" relation be proven antisymmetric? By antisymmetric I mean there is not some chain of theories in which some theory proves other theories consistent which in turn prove it consistent.
If $\succ$ is the "proves consistent" relation:
$A\succ B\iff (A\models Con(B))\quad\forall A\forall B $
then I think antisymmetry is usually written as follows:
$A\succ B\land B\succ A\implies A=B\quad\forall A\forall B$
Can this be proven?
This is an inquiry motivated in part by learning that Gentzen's Consistency Proof is neither weaker nor stronger than PA, which suggests an ordering may not necessarily be implied by proving consistency.
It would seem to me that by Godel's imcompleteness theorem we're denied reflexivity:
$A\succ B\implies A\neq B$
which denies us the usual antisymmetry rule. But it seems this doesn't necessarily rule out antisymmetry provided we have transitivity. Because if $\succ$ were both transitive and symmetric, we might have the following contradiction:
$A\succ C\succ A \implies A\succ A\implies A\neq A$
$\therefore\nexists C\mid A\succ C\succ A$
Which fulfils the purpose of antisymmetry when we're denied reflexivity.
So the limit of what I can prove is that "proves consistent" is antisymmetric provided it is also transitive - which I have, as yet, no reason to believe it is.