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Consider these two integrals:

$$\int_{0}^{\pi}{x\over a+b\tan^2x}\mathrm dx=\int_{0}^{\pi}{x\over a+b\cot^2x}\mathrm dx$$ where $(a,b)$ are real numbers

Are they equal, because it is trivial? I can't see it.

Can anyone demonstrate how they are equal?

1 Answers1

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By splitting the integration range in halves the first integral equals: $$ 2\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\frac{dx}{a+b\tan^2(x)} = 2\int_{0}^{+\infty}\frac{dt}{(a+bt^2)(1+t^2)}$$ and the same applies to the second integral. Both equal $\int_{\mathbb{R}}\frac{dt}{(a+bt^2)(1+t^2)}$.

Jack D'Aurizio
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