$$\lim_{x\to0} \frac{f'(x) - \frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x}}{x} = \frac{f''(0)}{2}$$
I have been thinking about this for a bit of time now, but I'm not getting anything. What I have done: write $f'(x)$ as it's defined: $$f'(x) = \lim_{h\to x}\frac{f(h) - f(x)}{h-x}$$
Now we can write: $$\lim_{x\to0} \frac{f'(x) - \frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x}}{x} = \lim_{x\to0} \frac{\lim_{h\to x}\frac{f(h) - f(x)}{h-x} - \frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x}}{x} $$
I have tried lots of algebraic manipulation after this, but nothing has come out so far. Could someone steer me in the right direction?
EDIT: I just opened Rudin, which has a similar question that indicates that l'Hopital's should be used. Indeed:
$$\lim_{x\to0} \frac{f'(x) - \frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x}}{x} = \lim_{x\to0} \frac{xf'(x) - f(x)-f(0)}{x^2}$$
We can apply l'Hôpital: $$ \lim_{x\to0} \frac{xf'(x) - f(x)-f(0)}{x^2} = \lim_{x\to0}\frac{f'(x) + xf''(x) - f'(x)}{2x} = \frac{f''(0)}{2}$$
EDIT #2Using Taylor's theorem, as suggested in the comments. We choose to perform the Taylor expansion of $f(0)$ at $x_0 = x $. Then: $\exists c $ between $x$ and $0$ such that:
$$f(0) = f(x) - xf'(x) + \frac{x^2f''(c)}{2} \implies \frac{f''(c)}{2} = \frac{f'(x) - \frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x}}{x} $$
As $x\to 0$, $c\to 0 $ and we have
$$\lim_{x\to0} \frac{f'(x) - \frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x}}{x} = \frac{f''(0)}{2}$$