It's pretty unclear what it would even mean to ask when you can, in the course of proving a true statement, avoid the use of a true theorem, since it doesn't obviously make sense to ask "what if the theorem were false?" You can try to avoid citing the theorem, but maybe in the course of the proof you secretly end up reproving it anyway; it's hard to draw a principled distinction here.
However, you can get around this by trying to find a natural generalization of the true statement in which the true theorem you're applying becomes a hypothesis, and ask what happens if the hypothesis is false. For example: typically the way we prove unique factorization for $\mathbb{Z}$ is using the Euclidean algorithm. You might want to know if this is necessary. It's unclear what it would mean to ask this question of $\mathbb{Z}$, but you can generalize by asking this question of other rings, which leads to the following question:
Is every unique factorization domain (UFD) a Euclidean domain (ED)?
The answer, very interestingly, is no. For example, you can show that the polynomial ring $k[x, y]$ in two variables over a field is a UFD, but it can't be an ED because it's not a PID. A more interesting example is that the ring of integers $\mathbb{Z} \left[ \frac{1 + \sqrt{-19} }{2} \right]$ is a UFD, even a PID, but still not an ED; see for example this math.SE question.
We can even make some progress on the corresponding question about $\mathbb{Z}$: it's a general fact that every PID is a UFD, so if you can prove that $\mathbb{Z}$ is a PID without using the Euclidean algorithm, perhaps by proving some more general fact about a larger class of rings that includes non-EDs, then you can really start to claim that you've avoided the Euclidean algorithm. It might be possible to do this using some more general technique for computing the class numbers of number rings, although one has to be careful to avoid circularity here in case any of those results rely on the assumption that $\mathbb{Z}$ is a UFD already...