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I have a question about a variation of the content in this answer: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/694319/418401

It states (variated) that: $$ (\forall x)(\forall y)(\forall z) [ \lnot A(x,x)\land (A(x,y)\land A(y,z) \rightarrow A(x,z) ) \land (A(x,y) \lor A(y,x))] \land (\forall y)(\exists x)\lnot A(y,x) $$

This sentence must be false for all finite domains, but is true for some infinite domain (indeed, take the set of integers and define $A(y,x)$ as $y > x$, then this implication is true).

However, how can I proof that the form is false for a domain with $n$ elements? Then, by the last part of the disjunction, for every $y$, there exist $0 < k \leq n$ elements $x_k$ where $A(y,x_k)$ is true. Also, there are $i= n-k$ elements $x_i$ where $A(y,x_i)$ is false. But this doesn't say anything about the part of the form that says $(A(x,y) \land A(y,x))$ except that $A(x,y)$ must be true for some $x,y$..

Note that this is the negation of the form $$ (\forall x)(\forall y)(\forall z) [ \lnot A(x,x)\land (A(x,y)\land A(y,z) \rightarrow A(x,z) ) \land (A(x,y) \lor A(y,x))] \implies (\exists y)(\forall x)A(y,x) $$ Maybe we must proof that this is always true, but then again I can't make the next step in my thinking.

Sven
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First of all: the statement as you have it can be true for any domain, finite, or infinite. ... That second part $(\forall y)(\exists x)\lnot A(y,x)$ is trivially true once you already have from the first part that $(\forall x) \neg A(x,x)$

So ... I am fairly certain that the statement should be:

$$ (\forall x)(\forall y)(\forall z) [ \lnot A(x,x)\land (A(x,y)\land A(y,z) \rightarrow A(x,z) ) \land (A(x,y) \lor A(y,x))] \land (\forall y)(\exists x)A(x,y) $$

Now: the first part of the sentence states that $A$ is a total order: $A$ is irreflexive, transitive, and total. What this means is that all the objects in the domain can be 'lined up' from left to right, where for any object $x$ and any object $y$: $x$ is to the left of $y$ if and only if $A(x,y)$ (and so of course you can do this for any domain, finite, or infinite, which is again why your original statement can be made true for any size domain)

So: if you have a finite number of objects in your domain, then you must have a 'left most' (or 'smallest') object with no further object to the left of it. Hence, $(\forall y)(\exists x)A(x,y)$ will have to be false if $ (\forall x)(\forall y)(\forall z) [ \lnot A(x,x)\land (A(x,y)\land A(y,z) \rightarrow A(x,z) ) \land (A(x,y) \lor A(y,x))]$ is true ... if you have a finite domain. For infinite domain, we can of course consider something like the integers, that can be ordered using $<$, but where there is no 'smallest' (or 'biggest') object.

EDIT

I see that you try to understand why

$$ (\forall x)(\forall y)(\forall z) [ A(x,x)\land (A(x,y)\land A(y,z) \rightarrow A(x,z) ) \land (A(x,y) \lor A(y,x))] \rightarrow (\exists y)(\forall x)A(y,x) $$

has to be true for any finite sized domain.

Hint: try induction to show that for any $n \ge 1$: this claim has to be true for any domain with $n$ objects. Here's a start:

Base: 1 object (the base is 1 ... in logic we typically assume the domain is non-empty ... in fact, if the domain were empty, the claim would be false!).

OK, call this object $a$. For the antecedent to be true we must have $A(a,a)$ ... but asince $a$ is the only object from the domain we have $(\exists y)(\forall x)A(y,x)$

Step: Take any $n \ge 1$. Suppose claim is true for this $n$ (inductive hypothesis)

Now show it is true for $n+1$. So take domain with $n+1$ objects. Put 1 object (call it a) aside. Apply inductive hypothesis on the remaining $n$ ... and I think you can take it from here ...

Bram28
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You can try a simple case with three elements: $1,2,3$ and $>$ ($\ge$ is ruled out by the first clause : $¬A(x,x)$).

We have $3>2$ and $2>1$ and also $3>1$ by the 2nd clause (transitivity)

The 3rd clause is satisfied, because every pair is "comparable".

We are left with the "tricky" part:

$(\forall y)(\exists x) \lnot (y > x)$

and this is trivially satisfied by the fact that:

$\lnot (3 > 3), \ldots$


A similar formula which has no finite models is:

$(∀x)(∀y)(∀z)[¬A(x,x)∧(A(x,y)∧A(y,z) → A(x,z)) ∧ (∀x)(∃y)A(x,y)]$

In order to show that it is false in every finite domain, we can use again a simple case: $1,2,3$ and $<$.

All the reasoning above works well except for the last clause: $(∀x)(∃y)(x < y)$. What happens with $3$ ?

We have no "successor" for it in the (finite) chain and if we try a "loop", i.e. we set: $3 < 1$; but by transitivity we end with $1 < 1$, which is not.

  • +! Great answer! – Bram28 Mar 13 '17 at 16:42
  • I changed the original form, since I am working on a similar problem. If I asked that one, I was afraid to get the right answer immediately and not figure it out myself with some help on something similar.. My form which must be true for all finite domains is actually $(\forall x)(\forall y)(\forall z) [ A(x,x)\land (A(x,y)\land A(y,z) \rightarrow A(x,z) ) \land (A(x,y) \lor A(y,x))] \implies (\exists y)(\forall x) A(y,x) $ – Sven Mar 13 '17 at 17:32
  • @SvenCornetsdeGroot -Ok, no problem; you are free to ask what you prefer :-) – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Mar 13 '17 at 19:21
  • @MauroALLEGRANZA But it was more confusing than helpfull I guess, if you still have a tip, it would be very welcome – Sven Mar 13 '17 at 21:02
  • @SvenCornetsdeGroot Use induction! – Bram28 Mar 13 '17 at 21:58
  • @SvenCornetsdeGroot Edited my answer to address your 'real' question ... – Bram28 Mar 13 '17 at 22:08
  • @Bram28 I figured it out, great! – Sven Mar 14 '17 at 09:40
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Let $A$ be a relation as stated, and construct $B$ so that $B(x,x)$ for all $x$, and otherwise $B(x,y)$ if and only if $A(x,y)$. We show that $B$ is a nonwellfounded total order.

$B$ is reflexive by definition.

It's transitive. To show that if $B(x,y)$ and $B(y,z)$ then $B(x,z)$:

  • if $x,y,z$ are all different then we just use $A$'s transitivity;
  • if $x=z$ then it's vacuous;
  • if $x=y \not = z$ then it's trivial;
  • if $x \not = y$ and $y=z$ then it's trivial.

It's antisymmetric: if $x \not = y$, and $B(x,y)$, then $A(x,y)$ and so $\neg A(y,x)$, so $\neg B(y,x)$.

It's total: if $x \not = y$ and $\neg B(x,y)$, then $\neg A(x,y)$ and so $A(y,x)$, and hence $B(y,x)$.

The final criterion for $A$ tells us that $(\forall y)(\exists x) \neg A(y,x)$; since $A$ is antireflexive, we know that for any given $y$, the corresponding $x$ is not equal to $y$. But then $\forall y \exists x: \neg B(y,x)$ and hence $\forall y \exists x: B(x,y)$.

So $B$ is a nonwellfounded total order; and they only exist on infinite sets. Indeed, if $B$ is a nonwellfounded total order on a finite set, then pick any element, and iterate the procedure "take some nonequal previous element" (which exists because $B$ is nonwellfounded, and doesn't require choice because the underlying set is finite). By antisymmetricity, we can't pick the same element twice; so this procedure must terminate after finitely many steps, which is a contradiction to the fact that every element has a smaller element.