How should I do this proof? should induction be used?
So far I have thought about using:
$\sum_{k=0}^n {n \choose k} = 2^n$ and $\sum_{k=0}^n k^2 = \frac{1}{6}n(n+1)(2n+1)$
but I cant break up that summation so I'm not sure how to proceed.
How should I do this proof? should induction be used?
So far I have thought about using:
$\sum_{k=0}^n {n \choose k} = 2^n$ and $\sum_{k=0}^n k^2 = \frac{1}{6}n(n+1)(2n+1)$
but I cant break up that summation so I'm not sure how to proceed.
The binomial theorem gives that $$ \sum_{k = 0}^n {n \choose k} x^k y^{n-k} = (x+y)^n.$$ Differentiating with respect to $x$ and multiplying by $x$ gives $$ \sum_{k=1}^n {n \choose k} k x^k y^{n-k} = nx(x+y)^{n-1}.$$ Differentiating with respect to $x$ and multiplying by $x$ again gives $$ \sum_{k = 1}^n {n \choose k} k^2 x^k y^{n-k} = nx(x+y)^{n-1} + n(n-1)x^2(x+y)^{n-2}.$$ Setting $x = y = 1$ gives $$ \sum_{k = 1}^n {n \choose k} k^2 = n 2^{n-1} + n(n-1)2^{n-2} =n(n+1)2^{n-2},$$ as you were trying to show.
Note that $\sum_{k=0}^n{n\choose k}x^k = (1+x)^n$ and $(xD)^2 x^k|_{x=1} = k^2 x^k|_{x=1}=k^2$, where $D = d/dx$.