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In part one of this youtube video the uploader goes on to explain the calculus proof for Euler's Formula.

The Formula $$e^{ix} = \cos(x) + i\sin(x)$$ Differentiate $$ie^{ix} = f'(x) + i g'(x)$$ Multiply original formula by $i$ $$ie^{ix} = if(x) - g(x)$$ Equate the differentiation and the multiplied version $$f'(x) + ig'(x) = if(x) - g(x)$$ Equate real and imaginary (and cancel the i) $$f'(x) = -g(x) \qquad g'(x) = f(x)$$

Then he goes on to explain $f(x) = \cos(x)$ and $g(x) = \sin(x)$. My question is why can't $f(x) = \sin(x)$ and $g(x) = -\cos(x)$? Can further proof be added to this proof to eliminate $f(x) = \sin(x)$ and $g(x) = -\cos(x)$?

Dan
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2 Answers2

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Because we know the initial condition $e^{i0}=1$ holds. As with most differential equations, there's an family of answers that you need to use the initial condition to find the correct one for.

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    Stella (+1) for the answer. I reject the so-called proof of Euler's formula inasmuch as it uses a result from real analysis (i.e., $\frac{de^x}{dx}=e^x$) and presumes that it holds for the yet-to-be-defined object $e^{ix}$. – Mark Viola Mar 11 '17 at 15:36
  • @Dr.MV Agreed. My preferred way is to define $e^{ix}$ by the Taylor polynomial and then use complex analysis to prove that the power series preserves the usual properties of the real analysis function $e^x$. Euler's Equation is then simply obtained from comparing power series. – Stella Biderman Mar 11 '17 at 18:07
  • Yes, that's a good standard approach. – Mark Viola Mar 11 '17 at 18:12
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Let z=cos(x)+isin(x) When you 8derive it (in terms of x), z'=-sin(x)+icos(x) And since we are in the complex world, -1=i×i =>z'=i×isin(x)+icos(x)=i(cos(x)+isin(x))=iz This pretty much makes it a first order differential equation. After dividing by z and multiplying by dx (z'=dz/dx) both on both sides and integrating both sides, you get: ln(z)=ix+c ln(cos(x)+isin(x))=ix+c If we set x=0, cos(0)=1,sin(0)=0 and ln(1)=0 => ln(1)=c=>c=0 => ln(cos(x)+isin(x))=ix e^ix=cos(x)+isin(x). Hope this helps.