The series $\displaystyle \sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n \log n}$ is known to diverge. This can be seen with comparison to the harmonic series.
The other series $\displaystyle \sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^n}{n \log n}$ converges due to Liebniz's alternating criterion. I see these two series quite often in exams' questions to examine them if they converge or not. The answers are pretty straight forward.
Now , out of curiosity , could we find a closed form for the series
$$\mathcal{S}=\sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^n}{n \log n}$$
The interesting fact is that if we define the function
$$f(s)=\sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^n}{n^s \log n} , \; s \geq 1$$
then taking the derivative with respect to $s$ we get that
$$f'(s)=-\sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^n}{n^s} = \zeta(s) - 2^{1-s} \zeta(s) - 1$$
I don't know how to go back and evaluate $f(1)$. Has anyone done that before. Expressing the value of the series in terms of special functions will suit me. Numerically it is approximately equal to $0.526412$. That said Wolfram. So, any clues?