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I'm looking for a hint regarding the following proof, I've played with a few approaches, mainly rewriting the conditions as congruences and equations and toying with the algebra, but am having trouble connecting the dots. Thanks! -

Consider $n = p_1p_2 \dotsc p_s$ with $p$ primes, such that $\forall_i \ \ (p_i-1) \ | \ (n-1)$.

Show that $a^n \equiv a \ (\text{mod}\ n)$ for all $a$ ($1 \leq a \leq n -1$)

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So this is what I arrived at:

By FLT $\rightarrow$ $\forall_i \forall{a} \ (p_i \mid a^{p_i -1} -1)$. Because we know that $(p_i - 1) \mid (n-1)$, we have that $p_i \mid a^{n-1} - 1$. Since the relation holds for all $p_i$, then it also holds for their product $n$. Therefore, $n \mid a^{n-1} - 1$.

This gives $a^{n-1} \equiv 1 \ (\text{mod} \ n)$. Multiplying by $a$ on both sides, we get $a^{n} \equiv a \ (\text{mod} \ n)$, as we wanted.