Can I only prove that they have the same cardinality, and, by definition, having the same cardinality implies that there is a bijection between the sets, or do I have to prove that there is an injection and a surjection between the sets?
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Well... how do you prove that they have the same cardinality? – AnalysisStudent0414 Mar 06 '17 at 11:19
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Let $F$ be the set of all functions from $A \to \{0,1\}$. We can define $\phi: F\to P(A)$ as follows,
$$F(f) = \{ a\in A : f(a) =1\}.$$

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