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Does this limit exist?

$\lim \limits_{n\to \infty} \dfrac{\int^{\pi/2} \limits_{0}\cos ^{n+1}(x)\,\,dx}{\int^{\pi/2} \limits_{0}\cos ^{n}(x)\,\,dx}$

zoli
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4 Answers4

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Here is a more general point of view ...

Consider a continuous and positive function $f:[a,b]\to\mathbb{R}$, and for all $n\in\mathbb{N}$ :

$$u_n=\int_a^bf(t)^n\,dt$$

It is well known that, if $M$ denotes the maximum of $f$ on $[a,b]$ :

$$\lim_{n\to\infty}(u_n)^{1/n}=M$$

It is maybe less known that :

$$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{u_{n+1}}{u_n}=M$$

Indeed, we observe via Cauchy-Schwarz inequality that the sequence $\displaystyle{\left(\frac{u_{n+1}}{u_n}\right)}$ is increasing :

$$\left(\int_a^bf(t)^n\,dt\right)^2=\left(\int_a^bf(t)^{(n-1)/2}f(t)^{(n+1)/2}\,dt\right)^2\le\left(\int_a^bf(t)^{n-1}\,dt\right)\left(\int_a^bf(t)^{n+1}\,dt\right)$$

Now, we conclude using a partial converse of Cesaro's lemma (see below).

Back to the OP :

$$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{\int_0^{\pi/2}\cos^{n+1}(t)\,dt}{\int_0^{\pi/2}\cos^n(t)\,dt}=\sup\left\{\cos(t);\,0\le t\le \frac\pi2\right\}=1$$


Partial converse of Cesaro's lemma

If $(u_n)$ is a monotonic sequence of real numbers such that $\displaystyle{\frac 1n\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}u_k}=L\in\mathbb{R}\cup\{-\infty,+\infty\}$

then we also have $\displaystyle{\lim_{n\to\infty}u_n=L}$

Adren
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  • Maybe “converse” instead of “reciprocal”. And “vue” is French for “view”. – egreg Feb 25 '17 at 15:48
  • @egreg: Thanks :) I was about to write "converse" but was not sure. And "vue" is a typo ! Editing ... – Adren Feb 25 '17 at 15:50
  • "Très intéressant". I have learned a lot from your very general answer. My one uses specificities of function $f=\cos$ linked to $\Gamma$ function. – Jean Marie Feb 26 '17 at 09:12
  • @JeanMarie: Thank for your kind words :) – Adren Feb 26 '17 at 09:21
  • @Adren As you are interested by analysis, here is a recent question on this site (http://math.stackexchange.com/q/2164176) that has generated a very nice answer about Wirtinger's inequality – Jean Marie Feb 28 '17 at 21:37
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One can write:

$$\int^{\pi/2}_{0}\cos ^{n}(\theta)d \theta=B(\frac12,\frac{n+1}{2}).$$

using Beta integral defined by

$$B(x,y)=\int_0^{\pi/2}(\sin \theta)^{2x-1} (\cos \theta)^{2y-1}d\theta$$

Thus, using formula $B(x,y)=\dfrac{\Gamma(x)\Gamma(y)}{\Gamma(x+y)}$:

$$\tag{1}R_n:=\dfrac{\int^{\pi/2} \limits_{0}\cos ^{n}(x)\,\,dx}{\int^{\pi/2} \limits_{0}\cos ^{n-1}(x)\,\,dx}=\dfrac{B(\frac12,\frac{n+1}{2})}{B(\frac12,\frac{n}{2})}=\dfrac{\Gamma(\frac{n+1}{2})^2}{\Gamma(\frac{n}{2})\Gamma(\frac{n+2}{2})}=\dfrac{\Gamma(m+\dfrac12)^2}{\Gamma(m)\Gamma(m+1)}$$

with $m:=\frac{n}{2}$.

Using Gautschi's inequality (How do you prove Gautschi's inequality for the gamma function?) (as advised by Jack d'Aurizio) with $s=\dfrac12$, we have:

$$0<\sqrt{m}<\dfrac{\Gamma(m+1)}{\Gamma(m+\dfrac12)}<\sqrt{m+1}$$

Inverting and squaring these inequalities:

$$\tag{2}\dfrac{1}{m+1}<\dfrac{\Gamma(m+\dfrac12)^2}{\Gamma(m+1)\Gamma(m+1)}<\dfrac{1}{m}$$

Taking into account functional relationship: $\Gamma(m+1)=m\Gamma(m)$, (2) yields:

$$\tag{3}\dfrac{m}{m+1}<\dfrac{\Gamma(m+\dfrac12)^2}{\Gamma(m)\Gamma(m+1)}<1$$

proving that, when $m \to \infty$, $R_n \to 1.$

Remark: numerical tests show that the first inequality in (3) is not tight.

Jean Marie
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    This is really approaching the problem from "above", don't you think? – Did Feb 25 '17 at 15:08
  • @Did I don't know who has downgraded my answer which, surely is not the most elegant (the nicest one being that of Jack D'Aurizio), but has the advantage to show to the OP the use a "straightforward tool". – Jean Marie Feb 25 '17 at 17:50
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    Sorry but the point of my comment was not to ask that you give your rating of the other answers (about which, personally, I am not too concerned) but to note that, in all probability, your answer is not useful to the OP. Note also that to describe your answer as "the use" of "a straightforward tool" is quite misleading since you are basically postponing the task to evaluating the limit of a ratio of gammas, which is at least as elaborate a job as the original question. – Did Feb 25 '17 at 17:53
  • "It is well known that..." Actually, what is well known is that when "It is well known that" appears in a mathematical proof, this quite often signals a gap in said proof. Which is the case here. To determine the class of functions such that $$f(m)+f(m+1)-2f(m+\tfrac12)\sim\tfrac14f''(m)$$ when $m\to\infty$ (note the difference(s) with your assertion) would make for a (moderately) interesting MSE question... – Did Feb 25 '17 at 20:09
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    @Did You have rightly pointed 2 hours ago that my answer, as it was, was not useful to the OP. I have filled the gap. You have pointed an inexactitude in this complete answer ; I have corrected it, but please, I would not like it to turn into harassment (I saw that my answer was proposed for deletion now...). – Jean Marie Feb 25 '17 at 20:27
  • Please stick to the mathematical facts instead of embarking into dubious offtopic considerations (using the word "harassment" here merely signals you have no idea what "harassment" means). At present you are using the notion of Taylor expansion, which, in its simplest form, asserts that $g(x+u)-g(x)\sim g'(x)u$ when $u\to0$, for some fixed $x$, to justify some quite different asymptotics, similar to the assertion that $g(x+1)-g(x)\sim g'(x)$ when $x\to\infty$. These are not even related. Please explain. (As an aside, note that such a succession of comments ... – Did Feb 26 '17 at 07:20
  • ... pointing basic flaws should not be needed before your answer even makes sense mathematically (at present it still does not). This is not how the site is supposed to function.) – Did Feb 26 '17 at 07:20
  • @Did I have now a neat proof. I strongly appreciate your pinpointing of flaws that I heartily recognize. It is by doing errors that one progresses. But the moralizing (is it English ?) aspect of your comments is excessive. Consult some answers I have made for now a year on this site, you will not find many reproaches to be done to my answers. – Jean Marie Feb 26 '17 at 08:07
  • Next time, please post a first version which actually answers the question, and everybody will be happy. – Did Feb 26 '17 at 08:13
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By convergence in distribution, if $f(x)$ is a continuous and bounded function on $(0,1)$, $$ \lim_{n\to +\infty}\frac{\int_{0}^{\pi/2} f(x)\cos(x)^n\,dx}{\int_{0}^{\pi/2} \cos(x)^n\,dx} = \lim_{x\to 0^+} f(x).$$ It follows that your limit is simply $\color{red}{1}$.

An alternative is to compute such integrals through Euler's Beta function, then exploit Gautschi's inequality and squeezing.

Jack D'Aurizio
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  • [+1] for the idea, but I think that the OP will find it difficult to fill in the gaps. Do you mean that $g_n(x):=\frac{1}{I}\cos(x)^n$ where $I:=\int_{0}^{\pi/2} \cos(x)^n,dx$ is a pdf converging to a $\delta$ distribution and use the fact that $I:=\int_{0}^{\pi/2}f(x)g_n(x),dx=\int_{0}^{\pi/2}f(x)\delta(x),dx=f(0)$ ? – Jean Marie Feb 25 '17 at 18:03
  • @JeanMarie: exactly so. – Jack D'Aurizio Feb 25 '17 at 18:09
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Ok here's my method:

Let $I_{n} = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} cos^{n}x dx$

Let $u = cos^{n-1}x \Rightarrow \frac{du}{dx} = -(n-1)cos^{n-2}xsinx$

Then $v = \int cosxdx = sinx$

We have $I_{n} = uv - \int v\frac{du}{dx}dx$

$\Rightarrow I_{n} = \left [ sinxcos^{n-1}x \right ]_{0}^{\pi/2} + (n-1)\int_{0}^{\pi/2} cos^{n-2}xsin^{2}xdx$

$I_{n} = (n-1)(I_{n-2} - I_{n})$ , $n\geq 2$

$I_{n} = \frac{n-1}{n} I_{n-2}$

$I_{0} = \frac{\pi}{2}$

$I_{1} = 1$

$I_{2} = \frac{2-1}{2}*\frac{\pi}{2}$

$I_{3} = \frac{3-1}{3} * 1$

$I_{4} = \frac{4-1}{4} * \frac{2-1}{2} *\frac{\pi}{2}$

$I_{5} = \frac{5-1}{5}*\frac{3-1}{3}$

Now you should see a pattern emerging, and then by using the formula for product of the first $n$ even numbers and the formula for the product of first $n$ odd numbers we get that for $n \geq 1$:

$I_{2n} = \frac{(2^{n})!}{(2^{n}n!)^{2}}*\frac{\pi}{2} $

$I_{2n+1} = \frac{2(n+1)(2^{n}n!)^{2}}{2^{n+1}!}$

Now I'm not sure how to compute the limit.

mrnovice
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