I recently started studying number theory by myself and I am reading a book about number theory. There is one thing that I don't understand, the statement below:
If $a,b \in \mathbb{Z}$, then there is a $d \in \mathbb{Z}$ such that $(a,b)=(d)$.
I understand everything but the $(a,b)=(d)$. I know it has to do something with set theory probably, but what? Specifically why d is in parentheses and a pair is equal to a single variable?